Creation according to Genesis
Why the KJV
Posts  1 - 2  of  2
reddneo
Peace be unto you,

The King James Bible has been selected for this study because of the way it was produced. James took some special pains for a uniform translation to be made of the whole Bible that was consonant as could be to the original Hebrew and Greek. He wanted to see a Bible well translated in English because those which were allowed under Henry the eighth were corrupt and not answerable to the truth of the Original. So James had “appointed certain learned men, to the number of four and fifty, for the translation of the Bible,” who were the best biblical scholars and linguists of their day. “In the preface to their completed work it is further stated that ‘there were many chosen, that were greater in other men's eyes than in their own, and that sought the truth rather than their own praise. Again, they came or were thought to come to the work, learned, not to learn.’ Other men were sought out, according to James, ‘so that our said intended translation may have the help and furtherance of all our principal learned men within this our kingdom.’”

“Although fifty-four men were nominated, only forty-seven were known to have taken part in the work of translation. The translators were organized into six groups, and met respectively at Westminster, Cambridge, and Oxford. Ten at Westminster were assigned Genesis through 2 Kings; seven had Romans through Jude. At Cambridge, eight worked on 1 Chronicles through Ecclesiastes, while seven others handled the Apocrypha. Oxford employed seven to translate Isaiah through Malachi; eight occupied themselves with the Gospels, Acts, and Revelation.” †

And second because I believe that the translators of the KJV Bible were looking for truth in the Word with the grace of God. I think that it is natural and right for the Bible to be a work in three languages, the Hebrew, and the Greek, and the English and these three are written as one. For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one {1Jo 5:7 & 1Jo 5:8}. And the superscription that was written on His cross was written in letters of Greek, and Latin and Hebrew saying, “THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS” {Luk 23:38}. I believe the superscription was to signify that in due time there are three that bear record in the Word, the Hebrew, and the Greek and the English: and these three are written as one.


Thank You, Amen.
Ken

{#####(======================>

† A Brief History of the King James Bible
By Dr. Laurence M. Vance
Save
Cancel
Reply
replied to:  lucaspa
reddneo
[POST DELETED]

lucaspa, why would you think that my view of “3 languages” and its relationship to Trinity would change simply because the KJV is not the only translations of the Bible? I do not know French or German and cannot say where those translations fit into that. However, I will say that I believe a Bible translation should be comprised of three languages; because of 1John 5:7 & 1John 5:8: “For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.” And with Luke 23:38, I am convinced. “And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.”

I am not victimized by historical-grammatical hermeneutics. I believe The Word of God in the King James Bible has answers for 21st Century questions.
Save
Cancel
Reply
 
x
OK