Hi, I'm a college student working on a problem in logic. In the paper I tried to use disjunctive addition in the EXCLUSIVE sense of 'or.' My teacher said this is possible only in the INCLUSIVE sense of "or" so that in the exclusive sense P does NOT imply P v Q.

I don't get it; why doesn't P imply P v Q so long as we respect the differing truth conditions for exclusive disjunction v. inclusive?

Confused freshman

Tom


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